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Heart Attack

#21 User is online   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2009-September-03, 15:45

jillybean, on Sep 3 2009, 11:37 AM, said:

jillybean, on Sep 2 2009, 10:23 PM, said:

Scoring: MP

1 (1) ?


Not  playing NFB's - your bid?

It started ok

1 (1) 2 (P)
2N (P)

This is where it went off the rails and I ended up in 6, missing 2 aces :( Its too painful to post the actual auction. I fell in love with my hand, shut partner out of the auction and forged ahead.

Im still thinking slam so 4 seems like an underbid, how can I check for 6 safely and keep partner in the picture.. what is 3?

Bidding the opponents suit is the generic force, it is a bid
that says, I am strong, but for whatever reason I lack a more
descriptive bid.

In the current seq. it asks partner, are you really sure, you want
to play 3NT, please have a 2nd look at your stopper.
It may suggest 4H in a 5-2 fit.

If partner bids 4H, I will bid 5H, a quantitative invite.
If partnerbids 3NT, I will bid 4H, which will show a strong single
suited hand.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#22 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2009-September-03, 16:16

After
  1 (1) 2 pass
  2NT pass
you should play transfers: 3 showing diamonds, 3 showing six hearts, 3 cue bid, 3 showing clubs. That lets you sign off in either red suit, and also deal with all the game-forcing hands. On this hand, I'd transfer to hearts and then bid 3.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#23 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2009-September-03, 17:39

Those who bid 3 happilly are also aware that not so long ago the consensous for the 2NT bid was that it didn't show stopper?
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#24 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2009-September-03, 17:40

gnasher, on Sep 3 2009, 10:16 PM, said:

After
  1 (1) 2 pass
  2NT pass
you should play transfers: 3 showing diamonds, 3 showing six hearts, 3 cue bid, 3 showing clubs. That lets you sign off in either red suit, and also deal with all the game-forcing hands. On this hand, I'd transfer to hearts and then bid 3.

I think what solves the problem the best is much more easy, play NFBs, and bid a forcing 3.
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#25 User is offline   Quantumcat 

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Posted 2009-September-04, 01:12

Ah, another fan of transfers!

I don't think transfers are so good in this situation because there will be times where you need natural bidding and the similar situations where you use transfers or natural bidding might get blurred and then you have horrible misunderstandings.

With two of my partners we have transfers after interference of 1-suit opening and after any 1-1-1 auction, which works well: you can have weak bids and standard 2/1 bids with one bid. Also that a jump transfer (after interference of 1-suit opening) shows a bad pre-empt or single-suited slam interest (probably a bad agreement but I like it) so here it would go 1 (1) 3 (P) 3 (P) 3 cueing showing slam-interest and that hearts are trumps no matter what partner has.
I Transfers
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#26 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2009-September-04, 02:04

Quantumcat, on Sep 4 2009, 08:12 AM, said:

I don't think transfers are so good in this situation because there will be times where you need natural bidding and the similar situations where you use transfers or natural bidding might get blurred and then you have horrible misunderstandings.

It seems a bit unreasonable to criticise a method because some people are too lazy to agree upon when it applies. Equally I could say that Stayman is a bad convention because some partnerships don't know whether it applies after a 1NT overcall.

Anyway, this situation is easy to define: "After a non-passed hand makes a two-level response that is not game-forcing, or a negative double of a two-level overcall, and opener immediately rebids a non-forcing 2NT, we play transfers."
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#27 User is offline   andy_h 

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Posted 2009-September-04, 11:33

pooltuna, on Sep 4 2009, 06:02 AM, said:

andy_h, on Sep 3 2009, 11:58 AM, said:

In some other auctions, 3 may consist of both meanings (slam try in hearts or diamonds) and usually partner will bid 3NT and over that we remove to 4 to set diamonds or bid 4 suggesting self suited hand with a club control. For example, that auction might be 1-(1)-2-(2)-3-(Pass)-3. This 3 actually has a 3rd function, in that it is also a stopper ask. In this type of auction opener should always assume it is asking for a stopper, because if opener bids 3NT and responder removes that, it will tell opener that the intended meaning of 3 was a slam try.

Quote

Over 2NT I will bid 3 which is artificial and forcing. By process of elimination (for this auction) it's pretty much showing a self suited hand. That is, if we had clubs we bid 3 (forcing), if we want to sign off in diamonds we bid 3 and that goes with 3 as well, and if we wanted to set diamonds we can bid 4.
If 3 is non forcing why did you bid 2? I mean if you are worried about not being able to show a suit maybe you should use a negative double. IMO 3 is 1000% forcing. This frees up 4 to be what it should be....a self-splinter

My purpose of 2 was...natural bidding! Showing my 5th heart is huugee. How about say an unbalanced hand with either 6-4 or 5-4 with 9/10 count?
x KQTxx ATxx xxx or x KJxxxx KQxx xx? I would rather not make a negative double with those hands as I have a diamonds as a backup support and when partner bids 2NT I would like for him to judge which strain we should play in considering I did my best to describe my hand - that is, hearts and diamonds but less than GF. I would also prefer not to support diamonds right away to supress what might be a making 4 contract.
- Andy -

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#28 User is offline   Apollo81 

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Posted 2009-September-04, 13:56

jillybean, on Sep 3 2009, 12:37 PM, said:

jillybean, on Sep 2 2009, 10:23 PM, said:

Scoring: MP

1 (1) ?


Not  playing NFB's - your bid?

It started ok

1 (1) 2 (P)
2N (P)

Dare I suggest..........Gerber?
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#29 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2009-September-04, 15:02

Apollo81, on Sep 4 2009, 02:56 PM, said:

jillybean, on Sep 3 2009, 12:37 PM, said:

jillybean, on Sep 2 2009, 10:23 PM, said:

Scoring: MP

1 (1) ?


Not  playing NFB's - your bid?

It started ok

1 (1) 2 (P)
2N (P)

Dare I suggest..........Gerber?

Gerber would be great on this hand if you played it in this situation.

But even suggesting the use of Gerber in these Fora is probably grounds for expulsion. Or worse.

Of course, Gerber would not solve your problem. Suppose partner shows 2 aces. You may be cold for 6 if partner has the Q. Or you may be off two top club tricks.

But, then again, it may be an impossible problem to solve.

At least Gerber will prevent you from going beyond 4 when partner has only 1 ace.
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