Ant590, on Apr 21 2010, 08:15 AM, said:
Yes, Casaba has it right, my comment about the equivalence of 1♣-1♦-2♠ and 1♣-1♠-2♠ was quite misleading.
There are some hands which would have bid 1♠ over 1♦ which now have to bid 2♠; i.e. hands that can't really bare to be passed out in 1NT/2♣ but would have chanced a 1♠ bid as the latter is hardly ever passed (whereas 1NT/2♣ is more frequently).
There are some hands which would have bid 1♠ over 1♦ which now have to bid 2♠; i.e. hands that can't really bare to be passed out in 1NT/2♣ but would have chanced a 1♠ bid as the latter is hardly ever passed (whereas 1NT/2♣ is more frequently).
You should just define 2S as a reverse - there really isn't anything else you can bid with a reverse hand.