[Trinidad]

An idiot check. Why did EW miss game (IMPs)?
(EW play 2/1 GF, 15-17 NT.)

---

Rik

[whereagles]

The 3♥ bid usually shows not only a med hand but also an UNBALANCED one. This is because a balanced med hand opens... 1NT

Thus opener is probably 5-4 or thereabouts and West has two key cards, making game a decent shot. I'd say West should bid game first, ask questions later.

[Lurpoa]

I would bid immediately 4♥ as opener.
Bit also responder should bid 4♥ on 3♥ from opener (or 3NT, if you don't play it as Serious 3NT, or something else).

[mgoetze]

East doesn't really have a bid which allows West to evaluate his hand properly. Since he has quite a powerhouse he could well just blast 4♥. West... yeah West doesn't have a great hand but he already passed once and, hey, it's IMPs. I would say 65% East, 35% West.

[TWO4BRIDGE]

Trinidad, on 2011-January-09, 02:48, said:

An idiot check. Why did EW miss game (IMPs)?
(EW play 2/1 GF, 15-17 NT.)

---

Rik

..........1C
1H.....3D! = reverse-jump splinter (will at least get another bid from West)
.............OR 4D! = void if you think you are strong enough for GF

[mgoetze]

TWO4BRIDGE, on 2011-January-09, 06:13, said:

.............OR 4D! = void if you think you are strong enough for GF

...in which case you might as well bid 4♥, as partner is a passed hand and slam accordingly unlikely.

[TWO4BRIDGE]

mgoetze, on 2011-January-09, 06:42, said:

...in which case you might as well bid 4♥, as partner is a passed hand and slam accordingly unlikely.

You can never tell....Responder might have no wastage in Diam and a working 10 or 11 hcp:

x
A 9 x x x
x x x
K Q x x

[Trinidad]

TWO4BRIDGE, on 2011-January-09, 06:13, said:

..........1C
1H.....3D! = reverse-jump splinter (will at least get another bid from West)
.............OR 4D! = void if you think you are strong enough for GF

Unfortunately, the 3♦ bid was not available as a splinter. For starters, we have the general agreement that jump reverses are game forcing splinters. The reason for that is that you can't fit all the invitational splinters into the jump reverses. Therefore, we think that it is better to use them as GF splinters and use the bidding level that we have gained for cuebidding.
We also have the specific agreement that the cheapest jump reverse (when one is available, like here) shows a GF balanced raise to 4♥.

In this case:
3♦ GF Balanced
3♥ invitation
3♠ GF splinter
3NT Gambling 3NT with too much outside
4♣ Support with good club suit
4♦ Splinter

(With another partner, I play that the cheapest reverse is either/or: a GF splinter or a GF balanced raise. Responder can relay to ask: Step 1 is splinter, the rest are balanced and cues.)

Rik

[Siegmund]

3H and the final pass were both slight underbids but I don't think there is much blame to be given.

[TylerE]

I'm gonna go about 99.9% with West. Some of y'all must be bidding 3♥ on a lot less than i'd expect for it. IMO it's a more of a courtesy bid to give partner a chance to bail with drecky 6 counts.

[JLOGIC]

A jump raise shows about 18 or 19 support points (15 with a stiff, or a balanced 18 being a typical hand).

Responder has 9 points, including a fitting club honor. That is more than enough for game, so responder messed up by passing.

[gwnn]

west

[P_Marlowe]

Happens.

1C,1H,3H are clear, ... bidding 4H instead of 3H is not out of this world,
but 3H is certainly ok.

Simple HCP counting says, that 4H instead of Pass is right, but the 4333
shape and the Queens and Jack indicate that the HCP overvaluated the hand,
so passing is also reasonable.

And one is green, so game needs 50%, missing a 50% game is not terrible.

With kind regards
Marlowe

PS: I read Justins comment, that the 3H bid showes approx. 18-19, for me a 3H
bid showes something in the range of 15/16-18, he mentions some example hands, but
I would also make the bid with a semibal. 15/16 count .

[the_dude]

West .. his partner invited and he has 9 .. 66% of which are clearly working overtime. At what point does he accept?

[mtvesuvius]

3♥ was mildly conservative, but I think I would probably do the same. Passing 3♥ however was just plain bad. How much more do you need to have?!

[JLOGIC]

P_Marlowe, on 2011-January-10, 07:27, said:

PS: I read Justins comment, that the 3H bid showes approx. 18-19, for me a 3H
bid showes something in the range of 15/16-18, he mentions some example hands, but
I would also make the bid with a semibal. 15/16 count .

Marlowe, maybe you didn't udnerstand me but I said something like 18-19 support points (meaning HCP + distributional points). With a 4432 16 count you would open 1N, so presumably by semibalanced you mean 4225. A 4225 16 count is, to me, 18 support points (16 HCP + 1 point for each doubleton).

[P_Marlowe]

JLOGIC, on 2011-January-10, 20:34, said:

Marlowe, maybe you didn't udnerstand me but I said something like 18-19 support points (meaning HCP + distributional points). With a 4432 16 count you would open 1N, so presumably by semibalanced you mean 4225. A 4225 16 count is, to me, 18 support points (16 HCP + 1 point for each doubleton).

Yes semibal. means 5422 in the given situation.
I rarely add distribution points for doubletons, but if one does, than 18-19 support points
will result in the similar set of hands, with which I would raise to 3M.

It may still be, that my raises are slightly weaker, due to the fact that I started to play
using the Acol system, so that the jump raises started with 15HCP (also in the context of
a weak NT). But this could just be an illusion.

With kind regards
Marlowe

PS: Even my reg. p has no clue, how I count the points, ... and I have no clue, how he
counts.

[FrancesHinden]

[quote name='P_Marlowe' timestamp='1294901383' post='522175'

It may still be, that my raises are slightly weaker, due to the fact that I started to play
using the Acol system, so that the jump raises started with 15HCP (also in the context of
a weak NT). But this could just be an illusion.

With kind regards
Marlowe

PS: Even my reg. p has no clue, how I count the points, ... and I have no clue, how he
counts.
[/quote]

eh?

If you play weak NT (which isn't the same as playing Acol) then jump raises are if anything stronger than in a strong NT system. If you raise a 1-level response to the 2-level then you either have an unbalanced hand or strong NT values (which are much the same thing when it comes to playing strength). Playing strong NT, a raise to the 2-level might be a balanced 12-count, so there is more incentive to jump on a pretty 16-count.