[cencio]

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W is the dealer
Tell me both with the N pass and with the N 1♠.
Is it correct to bid 1♠ in N.
Thanks to all

[etha]

I was bidding 2♥ ekren 4♠.

[hrothgar]

If North Passes

(P) - P - (P) - 1♠
(P) - 4♦ - (P) - 4♠
All pass

(South's hand gets a lot worse after the splinter. You pretty much need 2 aces and a King for slam)

If North opens 1♠

(P) - 1♠ - (P) - 2NT

At this point, I suspect that you end up in at least 5♠

[LBengtsson]

I open 3♣ [east] if W and N pass. Then N/S end up in 5♠?

[BillPatch]

After that 3♣ opening North-South will often overbid to 6♠, making when East fails to cash the A of ♦ at trick one. Left to their own devices NS will usually stop at 5. Without the overcall if East leads he will often set a slam by cashing the A at matchpoints to avoid overtrick. That is anti-percentage at IMPs so it will normally make there from either side. West will probably lead a safe ♣.

[nekthen]

Rule of 19, ZAR count, an easy 2♥ rebid and owning spades all point to this being an opening bid. Ideally, we stop at 5 or bid 6 and dont get a ♦ lead

[Tramticket]

I would open 1♠ as North (just) and would expect East to compete with an Unusual No Trump (or other two-suited overcall) at these colours.

If we escape competition, the bidding might go:

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North's 3♣ response shows a minimum. South still shows further interest but North shows a singleton diamond - the worst possible singleton.

[nudnikbp]

North has two quick tricks and both majors, so open one spade.

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

I would pass the North hand, even if I would play Erkren, or some sort of 2-suited
opening that includes 4/4 or 5/4 hands, ..., if the 2-suied opening promises at least
5-5, go ahead.

[rookil]

Something that some of the better players at my club use is 5/6 card weak twos with modified Ogust; the west hand would qualify for opening 2D. In this instance east would pass or raise diamonds to add to the preemt but if responder had a better hand and replied 2NT, opener would rebid 2S showing the upper half of the range and four hearts.

What I meant continue, against a pair of these players, north would not get a chance to open 1S but then but then would get the chance to bid 3D to show the majors if your system allows. East might or might not bid 4D; in either case South will bid 4S. East might or might not continue with 5D depending on vulnerability.If he does South will likely either double or bid 5S again depending on vulnerability.

[msjennifer]

SIRS.We will pass the North hand.It is neither worth a 1S opening as it lacks lower limit of 10HCP for any 2ND seat opening.It is totally unsuited for a 2S opening as there is a 5 card heart suit and one can easily miss a little or even a grand in hearts ( if S holds some thing like x-AKQxx-Axxx=xxx and the H are 2/1 and S 4/2 normal expected breaks.). With the given hand, S will open 1S (or 1C in PRECISION).and the bidding will stop in 5S as N denies the HK (no heart cue). Of course as is normally expected the argument that what if W does not lead DA or that it is east who has the DA and west makes a harmless trump or club lead then 6S is ON ICE Quite true.But that does not justify one's poor bidding.

[akwoo]

In my Precision partnership, I get Tramticket's auction (except North shows a diamond singleton with 3♠, not 4♦, for us).

In my updated Roth-Stone partnership, North passes, and then has to catch up by bidding 4♠ opposite South's opening.

Playing 2/1 with a reasonable non-regular partner, I pass as North and splinter 4♦ over partner's 1♠ opening.

[mojila]

I would bid 1♠ as north. Have effective 10 - >12 points . spade bid also some discouragement to enter in bid by op. Let see what partner response.

[rmnka447]

I'd pass the North hand.

After South bids 1 ♠ or 3 ♠ over a 3 ♣ preempt by East, the contract would end up in 4 ♠ or 5 ♠.

After a South 1 ♠ opener, I'd endorse a 4 ♦ splinter by North and signoff in 4 ♠ by South

As the cards sit, if you bid 6 after South opens, you likely go down when West leads ♦ A.

Well, you might argue if North opens 1 ♠, East will be on lead and we'll be able to make. True as the cards sit, but whose to know that the cards sit this way and aren't sitting with the hands reversed. In that case, 6 ♠ bid after North opens probably goes down while 6 ♠ after South opens probably doesn't.

The bottom line is that bidding to contracts that depend on the opponents making or not making a particular lead isn't good bidding.

Reaching 4 ♠ or 5 ♠ is good bidding even if 6 happens to make on the lead.

BTW, if North would open I'd see the auction going this way

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3 ♥ starts cueing, so 3 ♠ and 3 NT become waiting bids. So over 3 ♥, an immediate 4 ♦ cue by opener must show both a ♣ and a ♦ control. With a ♦ control, but no ♣ control opener can make a waiting bid to let responder show a ♣ control if one is present. The actual 4 ♣ cue made then shows no ♦ control and opener's ♦ must be a singleton x.

[miamijd]

The hand is a lot harder to bid than it appears.

North has a pretty clear pass. The trouble with opening 1S is that you have no source of tricks. If partner doesn't fit you and you end up in NT, you're going to want to hide under the table. And of course the trouble with 2S is that partner will pass with a lot of hands that will score up an easy game in hearts.

If North passes and South opens 1S, North doesn't have an easy time showing this hand. 4D is one option, but you're really more interested in partner's hearts than his diamonds. Even if partner has Axx in diamonds, you still likely go set if he has KQJxx Axx Axx KQ, and that's a rock-crusher.

No, you need to find out about your partner's heart holding. Using standard methods, there's no good way to do this. If I had it available, I'd like to bid 2NT over 1S, showing a very unbalanced game forcing hand (even opposite a light opener) with 4+ spades. Now I think we untangle this hand just fine. I find 2NT as a natural invite totally useless opposite a third seat opener, so this treatment makes more sense to me. But it's highly non-standard.

Cheers,
Mike

[Cyberyeti]

If you open 1♠, E bids 2N a lot of the time which cramps your style, we bid 3♦ (good with spades) with the south hand and are going to have trouble stopping but should get out in 5♠ (possibly over 5♦).

If you pass providing E doesn't have a 5-5 minors opening available in which case the bidding may be at 5♦ before N gets to bid and it could go horribly wrong, we start 1♠-2N (full value 4 card raise to 3 or better, no void, no decent 5 card side suit) and we'll get to 4♠.

[pescetom]

Were North to open 1♠ and opponents keep quiet then our auction would probably go:

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Otherwise South would open 1NT which leads to the same place:

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[miamijd]

pescetom, on 2019-April-09, 06:34, said:

Were North to open 1♠ and opponents keep quiet then our auction would probably go:

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Otherwise South would open 1NT which leads to the same place:

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Why would you open 1NT with a 5224 17 count rather than 1S? There are no good reasons I can think of to do that, and a lot of bad ones:

1. You may well belong in a 5-3 spade fit
2. You may belong in clubs
3. The hand does not pose any rebid problems
4. If you open 1NT, you're going to miss LOTS of spade games when partner passes with 7-8 and spade support.

Mike