Posted 2020-August-06, 16:02
As in so many cases, how one plays it can be subject to discussion and agreement. Absent such a discussion, here’s how I’d reason:
My 2C was forcing one round, but not game forcing. If I hold a full opening bid, then I’m moving over 3C by partner. Btw, possession of Jxx in hearts is a non-issue, since it is reasonable (even if it turns out otherwise) to infer that partner has at most 2 hearts.
So partner can bid 3C, invitational, and I can pass it. You call it ‘competitive’ but now we’re arguing semantics. 3C shows a decent hand with clubs, but not enough to insist on game.
Logically, 4C can’t send the same message. 4C can be and should be forcing, because with less than game values, but a club fit, he bids 3C
As for the argument that all game force raises go through 3H, that’s not a good idea. When he bids 3H, all you know is that he has a good hand. 3H says nothing about clubs. He might, for example, have something like AKQxxx(x) in diamonds,some spade values, and be looking for 3N.or he might hold a monster hand in diamonds and be looking for game/slam in that suit.
Were he to bid 3H, and ignoring the possibility of a 4H call on your right,you might be endplayed in the auction. You might bid 4D. Now try to set trump in clubs below game, so as to enable cue bidding to slam!
Btw, don’t ever play minorwood. It has to be, imo, the worst slam convention ever invented. Use kickback instead. Then, here, partner could bid 4C to suggest cuebidding or4Has ace-asking (admittedlyone has to decide whether that’s worth giving up the splinter, but I oit is in this sequence.
'one of the great markers of the advance of human kindness is the howls you will hear from the Men of God' Johann Hari