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How to find our fit?

#1 User is offline   clons 

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Posted 2020-September-19, 19:11

Hello,

I played a game recently and missed a game in spades. My partner bid something I was not expecting and wanted to know some expert opinion on what the best bidding for this hand was. Appreciate the help!

Question 1: On other boards, East opened with 1S. Whats the expert opinion on this? Rule of 20 does pass.
Question 2: Was Wests re-bid of 2 clubs the best bid? If not, why? At another table, West raised to 2S. However I only had 3 spades and assumed the 1S response to my minor was 4 not 5? Is there a convention that I am missing that says this should have been 4? There was no overcall so negative double showing 4 vs bidding showing 5 did not apply. Thoughts?
Question 3: East then jumped to 3 diamonds. Although I was not balanced, I figured our best contract may still yet have been 3NT. How could I have known East had 5 spades? Whats the expert opinion on East second bid? If I had east hand I would have jumped 3S to show 5 and a medium hand. Thoughts?
Question 4: Although 3NT was down 1, what else would West have bid after that sequence. In hindsight, would 3S have meant to East: "I dont have 4 spades but I do have 3 so bid 3NT if you only have 4 spades and 4S if you have 5"?

Thanks for all your help!


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#2 User is offline   TylerE 

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Posted 2020-September-19, 19:20

1. I would open without thinking twice about it. Spades are spades.
2. I prefer 1NT personally.
3. Don't like 3d at all. This is just a bid with no upsides. It's the kind of bid someone who regrets not opening an opening hand makes.
4. 3! Automatic! What else could it be but 3 card support?
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#3 User is offline   Stephen Tu 

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Posted 2020-September-19, 20:34

View Postclons, on 2020-September-19, 19:11, said:

Question 1: On other boards, East opened with 1S. Whats the expert opinion on this? Rule of 20 does pass.
There's a strong tendency to open hands like this with some shape. Get in the first blow, obstruct the opponents, show some values. Downside is that partner may FG on some misfit 12/13 counts and you play some lousy 3nts that don't make when you could have stopped lower and gone plus otherwise. Or maybe partner makes some close penalty doubles that don't quite work because you have no bullets. It is a rule of 20 opener (11+5+4). Downgrade for no aces or not? I would open but I don't think passing is completely terrible, it'll work better sometimes.

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Question 2: Was Wests re-bid of 2 clubs the best bid? If not, why? At another table, West raised to 2S. However I only had 3 spades and assumed the 1S response to my minor was 4 not 5? Is there a convention that I am missing that says this should have been 4? There was no overcall so negative double showing 4 vs bidding showing 5 did not apply. Thoughts?
one spade only promises 4. But West should avoid rebidding 2c without 6 if there are reasonable alternatives, because partner without a strongish hand will often have to pass 2c even with a stiff, and you'd much rather play elsewhere. Generally don't rebid 2c on 5 unless something like 1435 shape, min hand AND having agreement that 1nt guarantees 2+ cd spade support (opinions split on how best to bid this, some prefer 1nt).

Raising on 3 cds depends on style. U.S. style is definitely to raise on 3415 shape with a small stiff, not strong enough to reverse, even though partner can be on 4 cds, and some will raise with small side doubleton also. This is done for multiple reasons:
- if partner does have 5+ cds, simplifies auction, encourages him to make marginal game tries (here probably just bid game), tends to be right partial when other options would lead to inferior spot (passing 2c in 5-1/5-2 fit when 5-3 fit was available)
- if partner tries 2nt/3nt, this has his holding led into rather than through of your small stiff (or doubleton), which might be crucial.
- sometimes the moysian 4-3 fit just plays well, with the ruffs being taken in the short hand, better than NT when opps are cashing a lot of tricks in your weak suit.
The combination of these good things happening people feel is more frequent than when you play a 4-3 2S and it's kind of horrible and 1nt/2c/3c would have worked out better.

Apparently the French hate raising on 3 cds though, so maybe don't do this playing with a French partner without discussion.

With the DA stiff, 1nt is an option, I'd personally still raise though.

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Question 3: East then jumped to 3 diamonds. Although I was not balanced, I figured our best contract may still yet have been 3NT. How could I have known East had 5 spades? Whats the expert opinion on East second bid? If I had east hand I would have jumped 3S to show 5 and a medium hand. Thoughts?

East should have bid 2. 3 should be some sort of 5-5 near opener type of thing, normally (as passed hand; as unpassed it can either be GF 5-5 or GI 5-5 depending on other agreements). ,I suppose one could also use it as some club spl raise by agreement, particularly as passed hand.

Bidding 3S is suicidal; it leaves you too high if partner is minimum misfit. Just bid 2d then 3 if partner doesn't support spades, which should show this hand. 3S as a passed hand shouldn't really exist; by unpassed it's usually 6+ cds inv, though playing it as GF is also possible.

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Question 4: Although 3NT was down 1, what else would West have bid after that sequence. In hindsight, would 3S have meant to East: "I dont have 4 spades but I do have 3 so bid 3NT if you only have 4 spades and 4S if you have 5"?


3nt should be made as the clubs behave even though spades don't. West denied 4 cd spades with 2, so any subsequent bid of spades on 2nd turn would show 3 if there are options. That's the problem with 3d; over 3d 3S could just be a preference on like 2326 hand, as it's somewhat unilateral to bid 3nt or 4c bypassing 3nt and it might be last making contract. Over 2d, opener is more apt to be able to bid 3c more comfortably lacking spade support. So East should assume either 3 cd support or maybe some doubleton honor hand with no heart stopper and no great diamond support.

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