[Chris2794]

Hey guys! I'm just thinking about playing transfer Walsh to 1♣. What's the best structure for that?

[Ant590]

There's no agreed best structure.

Your first decision needs to be what completing the 1-level bids mean. I believe the commonly played styles are:
(1) All min balanced hands with no fit
(2) All min hands
(3) Showing a fit (3+), min strength
(4) GF relay

I personally prefer (1), but the key thing is that once this decision is made, the other bids begin to define themselves accordingly.

[Free]

You also need to decide first what 1♣-1♠ and 1♣-1NT mean.

[fromageGB]

Ant590 missed a big one, unless his "minimum" includes a 14 count.

The first step is deciding what 1NT is opened with. My reasoning says 15-16 is best, as the 2 point range allows a 2NT rebid to play, after looking for 4/4 majors. If you have a 3 point range then you must have this 2NT as a game invitation, so it needs a bit more strength, which in turn means that without that bit more, responder has to pass and you miss the major fits that may be there (and are found by players with other NT ranges). A 17 point hand can be managed happily by starting with transfer walsh.

Next decide what sort of hand can open 1♣. Can it include a singleton in a major? If it can, you need a different method of handling the transfer walsh, as you do not normally want to play in a 5/1 fit. One method I like is to put those major shortages into the 1♦ open, so that the definition of a 1♦ open is any hand with 6 diamonds, or a singleton or void other than diamonds. This means that any hand that opens 1♣ will be (semi)balanced and not 15/16, or it can have a shortage in diamonds - in which case it will certainly have good majors.

This basis then means that a hand of shape 4252 (spades first) will open 1♣. Are you happy with that? If not, consider this :
(1) transfer walsh (as I know it) is excellent at discovering the major fits, and playing in NT otherwise
(2) if this shape had a point count within their 1NT range, people would open it 1NT completely forgetting about the diamonds - and play in a major or NT.
So why not open it 1♣?
The implication is that a 1♣ open guarantees no major shortage.

The completion of the major transfer at the 1 level can then show
(5) 12-14 and either 2 or 3 of the major.

The advantage of method (5) over (3), which I used to play, is that with 2 or 3 of the major, opener bids 1NT with 17/18, (or 2NT with 19 if you like). The strength is then immediately conveyed, and over the 1NT rebid, responder can use stayman with a 4 card suit and transfers with 5. Opener completes the transfer with 3 cards, but rebids 2NT with 2.

Another advantage is that when responder is pretty weak, it is better for opener to play in a 5/2 major fit than in NT.

As Free says, the decision on the responses of 1♠ and 1NT are also key. Some play one of these as showing diamonds, but I am very happy to forget the diamonds and use them to improve the majors and other hands.

1♠ = transfer to NT
(a) You can bid it with any NT strength for the hand to be played by opener. Transfer then invite with 2NT, for example.
(b) By following this up with stayman, you can use it to show invitational or better hands with only a 4 card major (or both). This may free up sequences following a major transfer to have other meanings, and it is better for a no-fit hand to be played in NT by the 2344 rather than the 4432 hand, as you will probably get a minor lead.
It also has the advantage that an invitational hand with a 4/4 fit in a major can be played at the 2 level with the invitation declined. The sequence would go 1♣ 1♠ 1NT 2♣ 2♥ pass rather than 1♣ 1♦ 2♥ 3♥ pass, with other methods. It does not happen often, but it's nice to look at a traveller and see your 2H tick amongst other 3H-1s.
( c) You can follow with jumps in minors for GF hands.
(d) You can follow with 2♠ for "invitational with clubs", so keeping your immediate 2♣ and 3♣ as both being weak and preemptive.

1NT = weak(ie less than invitational) 54xx or 45xx
It is tricky to handle both these hands otherwise. It forces to 2 of a major, opener rebidding 2♣ if he has no 4 card major for responder to then transfer to the 5 card suit.

Other things to decide

Responder needs to distinguish between weak, invitational, and GF hands, regardless of the length of the major(s), so there must be sequences that do this.
Responder must be able to differentiate between 4, 5 and 6 card majors.

This is helped by the method that a 1♣ guarantees at least 2 cards in each major, so you when you have a 6 card major you can always bid game in it, and can safely use an immediate response of 2M as weak.

[fromageGB]

As Ant590 says, other bids can then begin to define themselves. For example, if completing the transfer at the 1 level denies 4 and is 12-14, opener bidding 1NT denies 4 and is 17/18, then completing the transfer at the 2 level shows 4 card support and 12-14, and completing at the 3 level shows 17/18 and 4 card support.

Incidentally, if you have a 15/16 hand with a singleton or void diamond, I have found it best to treat it as 17 when there is a major fit.

Another bid you may find useful is an artificial responder rebid after opener completes the major transfer at the 1 level. 2♣ is used by me and others to define a hand as invitational or better. If you play that a 4 card major will initially transfer to a NT if invitational (and then use stayman), the transfer to a major then 2♣ has to be a 5 card major. This keeps things simple, and you have space to find a 4/4 fit in the other major as well, again in all cases playing in 2M of a fitting major when the game invitation is declined.

[Gerben42]

I can give you our Structure if u like.
Basically we play 1S as 5+D.
Accept of Transfer is exactly 3 cards or 17-18 NT. (1N opening is 14-16)
Weak NT hands with 3cd support rebid 1NT anyway, so 1c 1d 1h shows 5cd or 17+.

[fromageGB]

Gerben42, on 2011-July-28, 12:00, said:

...
Accept of Transfer is exactly 3 cards or 17-18 NT. (1N opening is 14-16)
Weak NT hands with 3cd support rebid 1NT anyway, so 1c 1d 1h shows 5cd or 17+.

I don't understand your method here.
You seem to be saying that by 1♣ 1♦ 1♥ opener is showing 3 hearts or 17/18 with 2 hearts.
But you also say 12/13 with 3 hearts goes 1♣ 1♦ 1NT, which seems contradictory.
Does this mean 1♣ 1♦ 1♥ has to be 17+ ?

[paulg]

I blogged out methods a few years ago. We still play essentially the same.