FrancesHinden, on 2012-March-21, 15:36, said:
I agree with the ruling, but this is mainly because on the information givn, South doesn't seem to be able to explain what 3NT actually means in their system and hence has no explanation for bidding 4D other than the UI.
Totally agree. However, VixTD's problem is in fact a problem, and playing TDs sort of have to live with it. I think I would have done the same thing Vix did, and use the results of the thread as my "PP" (likely through a different director, if I could. I have about 6 I can call on that would be able to explain this without my obvious bias, so one hopes at least one of them doesn't have a similar antagonistic relationship with the player).
Quote
Opposite a 2NT opening such as Axx AKxx Axx KQJ I want to be in 6D. Opposite a less control-rich hand such as Qxx AKxx Qx AKQx 5D is a better spot than 3NT. It's hard to construct a hand where 3NT makes and 4NT and 5D both go off. So I think it's an interesting bidding problem, but 4D is certainly a LA. That makes giving a PP for bidding 4D a bit tricky.
I think that with that argument, you'll have trouble avoiding "so, why did you pass 5
♦? What could partner do with a 'more slam-suitable' hand?"
I have to admit, I would have trouble. I think that 3NT in my systems should be 20 or so, in which case, unless it's the ace-full 20, 3NT is the best spot. But if it's starting to show 22+, I'd be required by Law to bid 4
♦, and I'd use that argument (that passing 3NT is clearly suggested by the UI, because systemically it shows a 22+ish BAL hand, and the UI tells me he doesn't have that, and I have an absolute max for my 2NT call)...
When I go to sea, don't fear for me, Fear For The Storm -- Birdie and the Swansong (tSCoSI)