[FelicityR]

Small IMPs game (two tables) Vulnerable vs. Non-vulnerable. What do you feel is best here? Redouble shows 10+, usually tolerance for the other three suits, and less than 3♠s as we play it.

---

And, as always, thank you for your replies.

Edit: My sincere apologies. I should have indicated we are playing 4M Acol with a weak NT (12-14)

[pescetom]

Looks like an obligatory 2S to me.

[apollo1201]

2S - long suit, weak hand (most common treatment)

Partner should be able to figure out what to do next now you’ve warned her.

If you pass and pull 2DX, she will think you have more.

You’d need a 7th S to bid 4,I think.

[Cyberyeti]

pescetom, on 2019-September-28, 06:45, said:

Looks like an obligatory 2S to me.

Obligatory 2♠ or 3♣, depends on the exact strictures for your redouble, but yes you must bid.

Bonus question - what is 2N a) if you play weak NT b) if you play strong NT

[RuflRabbit]

Cyberyeti, on 2019-September-28, 08:06, said:

Obligatory 2♠ or 3♣, depends on the exact strictures for your redouble, but yes you must bid.

Bonus question - what is 2N a) if you play weak NT b) if you play strong NT

I would think surely this should be Good-Bad 2NT, for those who play it under *any* circumstances. With any kind of balanced hand, I'd be giving pard a chance to hit it.

[Cyberyeti]

RuflRabbit, on 2019-September-28, 09:35, said:

I would think surely this should be Good-Bad 2NT, for those who play it under *any* circumstances. With any kind of balanced hand, I'd be giving pard a chance to hit it.

Well "bad" got opened 1N if balanced and you play weak

[smerriman]

RuflRabbit, on 2019-September-28, 09:35, said:

I would think surely this should be Good-Bad 2NT, for those who play it under *any* circumstances. With any kind of balanced hand, I'd be giving pard a chance to hit it.

If 2NT is good/bad, presumably showing a weak hand with 5-5 in the black suits, what would 3♣ be (normally that hand) or pass then pulling double to 3♣ (strong version of that hand) be?

I would just say 2N doesn't exist.

[Cyberyeti]

smerriman, on 2019-September-28, 13:20, said:

If 2NT is good/bad, presumably showing a weak hand with 5-5 in the black suits, what would 3♣ be (normally that hand) or pass then pulling double to 3♣ (strong version of that hand) be?

I would just say 2N doesn't exist.

This was more or less my point, it should be used for something.

[LBengtsson]

2♠ can be right but hand is not minimum with 6421 and high card in long suits. I play pass forcing and then 3♠ as invite. You have 2 more ♠ cards than 4M. partner has 10+ but can have more. 2♠ can be passed with ♠xx ♥Qxxx ♦Axx ♣Axxx

[Cyberyeti]

LBengtsson, on 2019-September-29, 04:36, said:

2♠ can be right but hand is not minimum with 6421 and high card in long suits. I play pass forcing and then 3♠ as invite. You have 2 more ♠ cards than 4M. partner has 10+ but can have more. 2♠ can be passed with ♠xx ♥Qxxx ♦Axx ♣Axxx

It is "minimum for defensive purposes" ie min if partner doubles for penalties, but not for offensive purposes.

Although 4M is being played, you either have 5 spades or 15 points in practice so there is little difference to a 5M system;.

[PhilG007]

♠

FelicityR, on 2019-September-28, 06:29, said:

Small IMPs game (two tables) Vulnerable vs. Non-vulnerable. What do you feel is best here? Redouble shows 10+, usually tolerance for the other three suits, and less than 3♠s as we play it.

---

And, as always, thank you for your replies.

Edit: My sincere apologies. I should have indicated we are playing 4M Acol with a weak NT (12-14)

I would bid 3♣. Partner's redouble had to mean something and could be indirectly showing a club suit
so it's vital to show your second suit now while you still can
If partner has something like ♠ A3 ♥AQ102 ♦ 109 ♣AJ1094
then a game or even a slam in clubs is eminently biddable.

[pescetom]

PhilG007, on 2019-September-29, 06:42, said:

If partner has something like ♠ A3 ♥AQ102 ♦ 109 ♣AJ1094
then a game or even a slam in clubs is eminently biddable.

My partner would have bid 2C with that hand, not redouble.

[PhilG007]

pescetom, on 2019-September-29, 07:47, said:

My partner would have bid 2C with that hand, not redouble.

Bidding 2♣ doesn't show the full value of that hand imho
The redouble is stronger It shows at least an opening bid so South
can tell the partnership has the balance of points.

[msjennifer]

Sir,with the given explanations the redouble is gonna make one bid.As played in Spade with only 5 losers my hand is good enough for 3 spades at least.I shall make a waiting PASS right now as that does not NECESSARILY indicate a good defensive hand.Partner has promised 10+ and that + is important.WHY can't he have a hand say xx,Axx,Axxx,Axxx(He is not a passed hand,)
, I,personally,think that one does redouble with such a hand.A bid of 2S or 3C may not help us to bid a confident 5S in competition if we decide that a penalty would not be enough.

[pescetom]

PhilG007, on 2019-September-29, 08:18, said:

Bidding 2♣ doesn't show the full value of that hand imho
The redouble is stronger It shows at least an opening bid so South
can tell the partnership has the balance of points.

Yes I wasn't thinking in Acol terms, sorry. 2C without the interference of double would be a game force in most other systems.

[rmnka447]

2 ♠ also. If partner is at exactly a 10 count and 2 ♠, you'll be about rightly placed. If partner makes a more forward going move, you can cooperate with this player.

[Ticklesme]

The redouble MUST be part of a convention.
So 3♣ is a secure bid, leaving all options open and invites for 3 or 4 ♠ depending of partners hand.
That you have at least 5♠ is obvious, since nearly all conventions state 5 major.

[cleveritis]

2S terrible. 4S makes it hard for pard to bid slam with right cards... 3S about right - with right cards we might hear 4c, we bid 4D - etc... partner can have x AKxx, Qxx, Atxx also - make 6c dece

[miamijd]

Two spades seems pretty obvious, at least in standard (non-ACOL) bidding.

When partner XXs after 1major (X), then unless you play XX as conventional (I do -- most experts in the US do), partner generally has one of two sorts of hands:

1. A hand short in your suit with 10+ HCP that either wants to play NT or penalize the opponents

2. The three-card limit raise in your suit, if you don't have another way to show this hand

Opener should always assume Hand Type 1; if you also allow #2, responder will clear it up later. When advancer bids a suit, opener will generally either pass, to see what responder is going to do, or else X himself with 3+ cards in the bid suit and some defense.

The one time opener will bid is when opener could not stand to leave in a penalty X. This is one of those times. If partner Xs 2D for penalty, you aren't going to leave it with a stiff diamonds, 6/4 in the blacks, and zero defensive tricks. So you bid 2S now to tell partner you have at least 6 good spades, short diamonds, and not a great hand (partner is allowed to pass 2S).

Bidding 3C is not good at all. What if partner has:

x AJxxx KQxx Jxx

This is certainly a very possible hand (no, you don't bid 2H with this; in standard bidding, that would show a weaker hand). If you bid 3C, you are going to go minus -- maybe X'd for a phone number. Better to get out quickly.

If partner has a hand worth forcing to game, of course, he will bid again.

Cheers,
Mike

[PhilG007]

cleveritis, on 2019-September-30, 11:38, said:

2S terrible. 4S makes it hard for pard to bid slam with right cards... 3S about right - with right cards we might hear 4c, we bid 4D - etc... partner can have x AKxx, Qxx, Atxx also - make 6c dece

I only see 12 cards in that example hand. It's a common error