[jillybean]

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[sfi]

Some more information would be valuable. What is the basic system, what does 1C show and what is the form of scoring?

Most of the time I'm bidding 2C though.

[jillybean]

It's MP but I would like to hear opinions on both forms of scoring.

2/1, 1♣ is 3+, we play 12-14nt

[pilowsky]

1NT

[Cyberyeti]

I didn't pass 1♣

[Tramticket]

2C now. But I wouldn't be in this position.

[fromageGB]

1NT
but I would have transferred to 1NT (or 2C if long) on the first round.

[jillybean]

You don't have a transfer over 1♣ available. If you bid, why?

[mikeh]

Given that partner will have 15+ if balanced and long clubs otherwise, passing is, imo, a mistake.

We would be happy to lay this hand down as dummy opposite a flat 16 count…almost surely preferable to playing 1C on a 4-3 fit (of course he could have 4 or 5 clubs and a balanced hand,but then maybe he’ll score club tricks in 1N).

Meanwhile, if he has an unbalanced hand with long clubs it behooves us to at least try to show some values to the opposition before they get involved.

So I think one has to bid 1D. Sometimes LHO has enough to balance over 1C but not enough to bid into a live auction. Even when that isn’t so (and it usually won’t be…if LHO is balancing, he’s usually bidding over 1D), by bidding we make it slightly more difficult for the opps to assess their combined assets.

So 1D for me.

[LBengtsson]

 Cyberyeti, on 2022-July-16, 00:43, said:

I didn't pass 1♣

Agree. The crux of this hand is listening to your opponents. West did not open but called 1♦ on the second round. East could not overall 1♣ (a third-in-hand bid) on the first round, and did not bid after your partner made a reopening X. So what does that leave partner with you playing a 12-14NT?

My guess, but it is a logical guess I hope is that partner has 4414 or (43)15 shape if you play a 5M system. I suppose partner could have 4423 shape here, but I am bidding 1NT here now. He heard me pass on the first round and the second round.

I guess again that you called 1NT (or 2♣) now and that partner bid again. If he did I think I want to be in 3NT or 5♣ because he should know what I have now, so any further bid by partner is a game try imo. Prefer 3NT though.

[jillybean]

Ok, is this the weakest hand you would hold to bid in response to 1♣ ? My rationale for passing 1♣, I don't want to state values that I don't have, my hand looks more like 4 hcp than 5, I don't want to hear partner bid 2nt on the second round. If the auction dies in 1♣, a 4-3 is ok, the big downside is that the rest of the field may be playing in 1nt with their 15-17 1nt opening.


LB, I'm not sure that I understand your comments regarding listening to the auction, you only have this information after your second pass.

[mikeh]

Whether 1D states values you don’t have depends on style. Few experts, not playing a forcing club method, pass 1 level bids with 5 hcp, especially with a potential fit and a king. This isn’t, for example, xxx Jxx Qxxx Qxx, a horrible 5 count with which I’d pass.

As for what to do after the reopening double, I think 2C is clear. 1N is, imo, very misguided. Almost no matter how the diamond honours are split (partner will rarely hold one), you probably have 4 diamond losers after you lose the lead to RHO. Then, unless you’ve set up winners and can pitch losers, dummy is going to get squeezed.

Meanwhile, partner rates to be 4=4=1=4 or some approximation….so 2C rates to be reasonably safe. While I now have perhaps more values than partner expects, they’re not pulling rather weight so I’m not worried that I’m being too conservative

[helene_t]

2♣ now.

I am probably missing something but I don't see the point of bidding 1♦ on the previous round unless partner could have a balanced 21 count. If I could respond 1NT or 2♣ systematically then it's fine but otherwise I am happy to pass.

[Douglas43]

2♣ but I'd have bid it last time.