GF or invitational raise?
#1
Posted 2009-December-02, 07:26
(1) 1M - 2NT = game forcing
(2) 1M - 2NT = invite or better
(and (2a) 1M - 2NT = raise to 3 or 5)
His logic was that playing invit+ meant you were in a very sticky spot when 4th hand preempts, for instance in terms of forcing passes. He cited the following type of issue:
1M - (pass ) - 2NT - 5m
where the lack of a forcing pass option for opener cost a game swing.
I felt that the gain of extra space to investigate games and freeing up the 3M raise for preemptive- or mixed-raise purposes more than outweighed this loss.
What do you think?
#2
Posted 2009-December-02, 07:40
The main concern is that you can't bid as accurately towards slam as you could if you played it as GF. You will need 3M as a sign-off, at least in some situations, while the GF'ers can play it as a waiting bid, allowing bids that bypass 3M to be more specific.
That said I like it as inv+ as it frees up other bids for other purposes. You don't have to play Bergen raises (at least you don't need two different Bergen raises) while at the same time as you said you can play 3M as preemptive.
#3
Posted 2009-December-02, 07:40
#4
Posted 2009-December-02, 08:48
That being said, any decent scheme will work, provided you put the focus on opener. I.e. it's probably wrong to do it like...
1M-2NT = "got hcps and supp. What have you got?"
while it is probably right to go instead
1M-2NT = "got hcps and supp. What else do you want to know?"
#5
Posted 2009-December-02, 08:57
Personally I play 1M-2NT as INV or min bal GF (so around 10-13HCP). With stronger hands we start 1M-2♣ relay. This has the advantage that none of the players should tell their hand when opener is not interested in slam, and when we are strong we have a lot more information before deciding if we want to go to slam.
Handling interference is not so difficult because responder's hand is very well described. I haven't had any problems so far.
#6
Posted 2009-December-02, 09:14
Disagree with wanting opener to be in charge on these auctions - responder is usually balanced, opener is often unbalanced, so it's best for opener to describe and responder to see how his honours fit with partner's shape.
#7
Posted 2009-December-02, 09:24
whereagles; emphasis mine said:
as opposed to responder, who is...
George Carlin
#8
Posted 2009-December-02, 09:51
gwnn, on Dec 2 2009, 03:24 PM, said:
whereagles; emphasis mine said:
as opposed to responder, who is...
...who is pretty much limited most of the time, because he usually:
- Doesn't have a splinter bid
- Doesn't have a long suit (didn't make a 2/1 bid)
- Doesn't have a hand that can go 1M-4NT immediately
- Doesn't have just 3-card support
So we conclude responder has some balanced 12-15 with 4M432 or 4M333 pretty much all of the time. Sure, he might have a balanced 16+ from time to time, but it is OPENER who is much more unlimited, in the sense that he can have anything from a decent flattish 11 to a super two-suiter with 20 hcp.
In light of what I said, it makes more sense to me to give control to opener. At least to me it does...
#9
Posted 2009-December-02, 09:55
whereagles, on Dec 2 2009, 09:48 AM, said:
That being said, any decent scheme will work, provided you put the focus on opener. I.e. it's probably wrong to do it like...
1M-2NT = "got hcps and supp. What have you got?"
while it is probably right to go instead
1M-2NT = "got hcps and supp. What else do you want to know?"
the opener is limited...He did not make a game forcing initial call. Now please tell me what keeps responder from having a hand which would make a game forcing initial call and is probably better placed to determine the final contract. What I'm saying is ...opening the bidding doesn't automatically make you captain

the Freman, Chani from the move "Dune"
"I learned long ago, never to wrestle with a pig. You get dirty, and besides, the pig likes it."
George Bernard Shaw
#10
Posted 2009-December-02, 10:00
#11
Posted 2009-December-02, 10:17

When responder knows immediately about a Major suit fit, 2/1 without J2N allows numerous ways of showing the nature of that fit in one or two bids.
Responder's hand is going to hit the table for all to see. If we can accomplish the same (or even approximate) goals by describing and letting opener be Captain without needlessly exposing declarer's exact holdings --this can be a gain in the play.
Sometimes there needs to be a bouncing back and forth of Captaincy and 2/1 can provide room to do that without J2N, provided you have good agreements, which include expanded use of forcing NT, truly limited splinters, natural 2/1 bids, 1957 BridgeWorld bidarounds, etc.
I realize there are very good arguments for using J2N and Bergin and nebulous 2C and, and, and. But this minority view has value, too.
#12
Posted 2009-December-03, 13:58
2/1 followed with support shows 3-card support for me.
Splinters are limited.
2NT therefore is unlimited with regards to strength, a little less when it comes to distribution.
Harald
#13
Posted 2009-December-03, 14:16
Elianna and I play that 2NT is either the bad (usually three-card) limit raise or a GF 4-card raise. This makes it somewhat more dangerous for opponents to jump in, since we will often have only an eight-card fit.
It also fits nicely in that there are a number of hands with a bit of shape that are fairly minimum and want to accept a four-card limit raise (usually passing as little info to the opponents as possible) , but accepting a three-card limit raise usually requires real extras, the knowledge of which can help substantially in a slam auction as well.
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
#14
Posted 2009-December-04, 04:24
skaeran, on Dec 3 2009, 07:58 PM, said:
2/1 followed with support shows 3-card support for me.
Splinters are limited.
2NT therefore is unlimited with regards to strength, a little less when it comes to distribution.
Your 2NT may be unlimited in theory, but in practice you'll have a very well defined hand most of the time. I'm willing to bet it's something like 90%+ of the time.
Under those conditions, it doesn't make any sense at all to have responder leading the auction. That is, in my opinion, simply bad bidding strategy

#15
Posted 2009-December-04, 04:43
whereagles, on Dec 4 2009, 11:24 AM, said:
skaeran, on Dec 3 2009, 07:58 PM, said:
2/1 followed with support shows 3-card support for me.
Splinters are limited.
2NT therefore is unlimited with regards to strength, a little less when it comes to distribution.
Your 2NT may be unlimited in theory, but in practice you'll have a very well defined hand most of the time. I'm willing to bet it's something like 90%+ of the time.
Under those conditions, it doesn't make any sense at all to have responder leading the auction. That is, in my opinion, simply bad bidding strategy

Still, if one hand is balanced, he should be captain. You say 2NT is usually balanced with 12-15HCP. Then opener should clarify his shape and strength. Same principle as after a 1NT opening.
We've had this discussion many times in the past.

#16
Posted 2009-December-04, 05:36
George Carlin
#17
Posted 2009-December-04, 13:33
#18
Posted 2009-December-05, 05:13
Say in the auction 1M-2NT, opener is player A and responder is player B.
Basically, after 1M-2NT you are at the same height as if B opened 1NT (limited and balanced) and A transfered a suit and is now bidding something GF (quite a big range). I don't know anyone who uses 1NT-2♥-2♠-3♣+ as asking bids. Instead, everyone is trying to let A describe his hand as good as possible. People even use transfer extentions to stay that 1 little step lower which can be so very useful.
Please tell us, what's the difference between these two sequences?
#19
Posted 2009-December-05, 06:22
If 1 major =2nt=game force ok...then so what?
Is the worry
1 major=1nt=other?
#20
Posted 2009-December-07, 05:26
Free, on Dec 5 2009, 11:13 AM, said:
I think you got it backwards. I'm saying OPENER should have the tools, not responder.